11 of a person standing in front of a plane mirror, the the mirror must be half the height of the person ▸ Spherical mirrors are the parts of a hollow glass sphere. They are of following two ▸ If the inner surface of the spherical mirror is the reflecting surface, then it is calle mirror. If the outer surface of the spherical mirror is the reflecting surface, then convex mirror >The centre of the sphere of which the mirror is a part, is called the centre of curva ▸ The centre of the surface of the mirror is called its pole (P) The radius of the sphere of which the mirror is a part, is called the radius of curva The straight line passing through the pole and centre of curvature is called the

****SPECIMEN QUESTIONS ****

 (1) Which of the following relations is true for spherical mirrors?

  (1)F= R 2

   (2) F=2R R

    (3) F=R

     (4)F= 4

      Explanation: The focal length of spherical mirror is half the radius of curvature. Option 1 is correct.

(2) -mirror is called converging mirror. 

(1) Convex

 (2) Plane

  (3) Concave

   (4) Any

    Explanation: Concave mirror is called converging mirror because incident rays parallel to the principal axis after reflection from a concave mirror converge at a point. Option 3 is correct.

(3) Magnification obtained by a spherical mirror is 0.75. Which type of mirror it must be? (1) Concave

 (2) Convex

  (3) Plane

   (4) cannot be determined

    Explanation: Magnification is positive means that the image is erect and hence virtual. The absolute value of magnification is less than 1. It means that the image is diminished. Only convex mirror gives virtual and diminished image. So, the mirror must be convex. .

    .Option 2 is correct.

(4) An object is kept at a distance of 25 cm from the convex mirror. If focal length of the convex mirror is 20 cm, find the distance of image from the mirror.

(1) 0.09cm (2) 0.01cm (3) 9 cm (4) 11.11 cm Explanation: u=-25 cm, f= 20 cm, v = ? 1 By mirror formula: + + vuf V -25 20 1 1 1 5+4 9 + V 20 25 100 100 100 V= 9 11.11 cm.

 Option is correct.

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

(1) The size of the image formed in a plane mirror is-

 (1) larger than the object 

 (2) same as the object

  (3) smaller than the object 

  (4) half the size of the object

Ana-(2) same as the object

(2) If the incident ray is parallel to the principal axis of a concave mirror, then the reflected ray- 

(1) passes through principal focus.

(2) is parallel to the principal axis. 

(3) passes through centre of curvature. 

(4) follows the same path.

Ana-(1)basses through principal focus

(3) What is the correct mirror formula for a spherical mirror?

(1)__1___1_____1

______-____=

____v___u_____f

(2)1_____1_____1

_____-____=

___v_____u_____r

(3)1____1_____1

_____+____=

___v____u____r

(4)1____1____1

_____+_____=

____v___u___f

Ana-(4)1___1___1

_____+___

__v___u_|=f

(4) Dentists use- - mirror. 

(1) plane 

(2) concave

 (3) convex 

 4) any 

 Ana-(2) concave

5) The magnification obtained by mirror is always positive and less than 1

. (1) plane 

(2) concave 

(3) convex

 Ana-(4) spherical

convex

(6) If an object is placed between C and F of a concave mirror, then the image obtained is 

(1) behind the mirror

2) at infinity

3)  (3) beyond C 

4) 4) at principal focus

Ana-(3) beyond C

(7) To get a virtual image in concave mirror, the object must be placed 

(1) between P and F

 (3) at C

  (2) at F

   (4) beyond C

Ana-(1) between P and F

(8) Concave mirror is not used for-

 (1) shaving

  (2) dentistry

   (3) street lamp 

   (4) solar devices

Ana-(3) street lamp

(9) If an incident ray is passing through the principal focus of a concave mirror, then the reflected ray

 (1) is parallel to the principal axis

  (2) passes through the principal focus 

  (3) traces back the same path

   (4) passes through the cer ature

Ana-(1) is parallel to the principal axis

(10) The distance between the principal focus and the pole of a mirror is called

 (1) radius of curvature

  (2) principal axis 

   (3) principal focus

   (4) focal length

Ana-(4) focal length

 (11) The image in a plane mirror is

  (1) inverted

   (2) laterally inverted

    (3) real

     (4) magnified

Ana-(2) laterally inverted

(12) A virtual image of a point object is formed when the reflected rays 

(1) converge at a point

 (2) appear to be coming from a point

  (3) go parallel to each other

   (4) trace the same path

Ana-(2) appear to be coming from a point

(13) The centre of the surface of the spherical mirror is called

 (1) centre of curvature

  (2) focus

   (3) pole

    (4) radius

Ana-(3) pole

(14) mirror is called a diverging mirror.

 (1) Concave

  (2) Plane

   (3) Convex 

   (4) Spherical

Ana-(3) Convex

(15) The distance between the object and the pole is denoted by

 (1)v

  (2) u

   (3)f

    (4) M

Ana-(2) u

(16) Which of the following is the correct relation in context with spherical mirrors?

(1) M = h₁ h

 (2) M=-2 

 (3) M = V u

  (4) M=-

 Ana- (4) M=---v

__________u

(17) The height of the object is always considered as

 (1) positive

  (2) negative 

  (3) zero 

  (4) whole number

 Ana- (1) positive

(18) Which of the following statements is wrong?

 (1) The focal length of concave mirror is negative

  (2) The focal length of convex mirror is positive 

  (3) The vertical distances measured above the principal axis are positive 

  (4) The horizontal distances measured to the left of the pole are positive

 Ana- (4) The horizontal distances measured to the left of the pole are positive

(19) The magnification obtained by a concave mirror is 4. If the height of the object is 10 cm what is the height of the image h, if the image is real?

 (1) 40 cm

  (2) 40 cm

   (3) 2.5 cm

    (4)-0.4 cm

 Ana-   (2) 40 cm

(20) To have a full image of a man of height 170 cm in a plane mirror, what should be the minimum height of the mirror? 

(1) 170cm 

(2) 340 cm 

(3) 85 cm

 (4) 17 cm

Ana -(3) 85 cm

Hints for difficult questions) 

(8) In the street lamps, the reflectors are convex. .

.Option is correct.

(17) Object is always placed on the left side of the mirror and above the principal axis. The vertical distances measured above the principal axis are considered as positive as per the sign convention. .

.Option is correct.

(19) M = h₂ h₂ h₁ -4= 10 h₂ =-40 cm. .

.Option 2 is correct.

(20) To get the full image of an object, the minimum height of the plane mirror must be half the height of the object.

 Option 3 is correct.

 12

Study of Sound

MPORTANT POINTS:

the particles of the medium oscillate about their moman positions in action para to propagation of the wave, then the wave is called fongitudinal wave If the particles of the medium oscillate about their mean position in a direction perpendicular to the propagation of the wave, then the wave is called transverse wave > Sound waves are longitudinal waves which comprise of compressions and rarefactions >The distance between the consecutive compressions or consecutive actions d wavelength of the sound wave and it is denoted by 2. The Spil of eng The number of cycles taking place per second is called the frequency of the (Greek letter nu). Its SI unit is Hertz ▸ The difference between the extreme value and mean value of the prudely its len amplitude of the sound wave. It is denoted by A. ▸ Frequency determines the pitch of the sound whereas amplitude determines the loudness of sound. ▸ The time taken to complete one cycle is called time period. It is denoted by Tand the uni The distance covered by a point on the wave in unit time is the velocity of the sound wave given by the relations: v frequency x wavelength of v ▸ Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium is proportional to the square root of temperare

****SPECIMEN QUESTIONS ****

(1) The distance between two consecutive compressions is 

(1) 슬

 (2)

  (3) 2

   (4)22

    Explanation: The distance between two consecutive compressions is the wavelength of the wave. .

    . Option 3 is correct.

(2) If time period of a wave is 0.01 sec then the frequency of the wave must be (1) 100 Hz (2) 10 Hz (3) 1 Hz (4) 0.001 Hz (3

 Explanation: Frequency= 1 1 T 0.01 = 100 Hz. ..

 Option 1 is correct.

(3) Wavelength of a sound wave is 3 m and the frequency is 100 Hz. What is the velocity of the sound? (4 (6 (1) 33.33 m/s (2) 103 m/s (3) 0.03 m/s (4) 300 m/s

 Explanation: Velocity = wavelength x frequency. So, velocity= 3 x 100 = 300 m/s. ..

 Option 4 is correct.

(4) At an echo point, the echo is heard after 1 sec. What is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source of the sound? (Velocity of sound = 336 m/s) (1) 336 m (2) 168 m (3) 33.6 m (4) 672 m 

Explanation: Distance = Velocity x time = 336 x 1 = 336 m. So, the distance travelled by the sound is 336 m. The distance of thereflecting surface must be half of it. ...

Option 2 is correct.

**QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

 (1) If the direction of oscillations of the particles of the medium is parallel to the propagation of wave, then the wave is called of e 

(1) transverse wave 

(2) longitudinal wave

 (3) mechanical wave 

 (4) electromagnetic wave

Ana-(2) longitudinal wave

(2) The velocity of sound in gaseous medium is than in solid medium.

 (1) more 

 (2) double 

 (3) less 

 (4) half

Ana-(3) less

(3) If the temperature of the gaseous medium is doubled at constant pressure, the velocity of the sound will be

 (1) 2 times

  (2) 4 times 

  (3) half

   (4) √2 times

Ana-(4) √2 times

(4) A sound has the frequency of 16000 Hz. What type of sound can it be called?

 (1) Audible sound

  (2) Ultrasound

   (3) Infrasound

    (4) None of these

Ana-(1) Audible sound

(5) Which of the following animals cannot produce ultrasound?

 (1) Bats

  (2) Humans

   (3) Mice

    (4) Dolphins

Ana-(2) Humans

(6) The sound generated by the vibrations of the earth's crust just before an earth quake is an example of

 (1) Audible sound 

 (2) Ultrasound

  (3) Infrasound 

  (4) High pitch sound

Ana-(3) Infrasound

(7) Gases A and B have molecular weights 2 and 32 respectively. If other physical conditions are same, which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Velocity of sound in gas A is one sixteenth of that in gas B 

 (2) Velocity of sound in gas A is one fourth of that in gas B

  (3) Velocity of sound in gas A is four times of that in gas B 

  (4) Velocity of sound in gas A is 16 times of that in gas B 

 Ana- (3) Velocity of sound in gas A is four times of that in gas B

(8)The unit of frequency in SI is_____

(1) Hertz 

(2) Newton 

(3) Watt

(4) metre

Ana-(1) Hertz

(9) Wavelength of a wave is 1.5 m and the frequency is 200 Hz. What is the velocity of the wave?

 (1) 133.33 m/s 

 (2) 300 m/s 

 (3) 201.5 m/s

  (4) 150 m/s

 Ana- (2) 300 m/s

(10) The sound of which of the following frequencies can be called as ultrasound?

 (1) 19000 Hz

  (2) 12500 Hz

   (3) 15 Hz 

   (4) 35000 Hz

 Ana-  (4) 35000 Hz

(11) The difference between the highest value and the mean value of density or pressure in a sound wave, is called of the wave. 

(1) frequency 

(2) amplitude

 (3) wavelength

 Ana- (4) time period

  amplitud

(12) What should be the minimum distance of the reflecting surface if a distinct echo is to be heard. (velocity of sound 338 m/s)

 (1) 17 m 

 (2) 17.2 m

  (3) 16.9 m

   (4) 33.8

 Ana-  (3) 16.9 m

(13) Sound wave is a wave. 

(1) longitudinal 

(2) transverse 

(3) electromagnetic 

(4) magnetic 

Ana-(1) longitudinal

(14) Pitch of the sound is dependent on-

(1) frequency 

(2) amplitude

 (3) wavelength 

 (4) temperature

Ana-(1) frequency

(15) Echocardiography is based on the reflection of 

(1) infrasound

 (2) audible sound

  (3) ultrasound 

  (4) light

Ana-(3) ultrasound

(16) To determine the depth of seabed technique can be used.

 (1) Sonography

  (2) Echocardiography 

  (3) X-ray 

  (4) SONAR 

Ana-(4) SONAR

(17) converts vibrations into electrical signals in human ear.

(1) Pinna 

(2) Eardrum

 (3) Stapes

  (4) Cochlea

Ana-(4) Cochlea

(18) In SONAR, a signal transmitted by the ship towards the seabed is received back in 5 seconds. If the speed of the sound in water is 1530 m/s, what is the depth of sea? 

(1) 3.825 km 

(2) 7.650 km

 (3) 38.25 km 

 (4) 76.50 km

Ana-(1) 3.825 km

(19) Which of the following statements is true? (1) Frequency of note Re is more than the frequency of note Ma of the same octave. 

(2) Frequency of note Pa is more than the frequency of note Ni of the same octave.

 (3) Frequency of note Dha is less than the frequency of note Ni of the same octave. 

 (4) Frequency of note Ga is more than the frequency of note Ma of the same octave.

 Frequency of note Dha is less than the Ana-(2)frequency of note Ni of the same octave.

 (20) If frequency of a wave is 20 Hz, its time period must be

  (1) 20 s

   (2) 0.05 s 

   (3) 10 s 

   (4) 0.5 s

  Ana- (2) 0.05 s

Hints for difficult questions)

(3) The velocity of sound in gaseous medium is directly proportional to the square root of temperature. So, if temperature is doubled, the velocity will be √2 times. 

Option is correct.

(7) The velocity of sound in gaseous medium is inversely proportional to the square root of molecular weight. Here, molecular weight of A is one sixteenth of that of B, so velocity in A will be four times that in B. .

..Option is correct.

(9) Velocity=wavelength x frequency = 1.5 x 200 = 300 m/s. Option 2 is correct. 

(12) To hear a distinct echo, the reflected sound must come after 0.1 second. It means it should travel a distance of 338 x 0.1 = 33.8 m. So, the distance of reflecting surface must be half of this

. Qis correct

(18) Signal is received in 5 sec. It means sound has travelled 1530 x 5 = 7650 m. The depth must be half of it. So, depth = 3825 m = 3.825 km. ip 5 ter

 Option 1 is correct.

(20) Time period=correct. 1 1 = = 0.05 s. Frequency

..Option 2 is correct.

 13

Carbon: An Important Element

IMPORTANT POINTS:

Carbon (C) a non-metal with atomic number and atomic mass number 12 configuration is (24) and its valency is 4. Carton ablet abundantly in nature is free as well as combined form Carbon is an essential element in all organic compounds. Carbon shows the property of allotropy. It has crystalline as well as non-crystallineamorphous allotropes Diamond, graphite and fullerene are the crystalline allotropes where as coal, charcoal, coke ac are non-crystalline aftotropes > Diamond is the hardest of all the known natural substances. In diamond, each carbon atom bonded to four neighbouring carbon atoms thereby forming a tetragonal three-dimensiona structure ▸ Graphite has a hexagonal layered structure. Every carbon atom is bonded to three othe atoms ▸ Fullerene has a Bucky ball like structure. C C C C C the examples of Coal is of four types depending upon its carbon contents. Pat Lights, Buninou o and anthracite are types which have increasing percentage of carbon in them Charcoal is made by burning bones, wood etc. in insufficient supply of ow After taking out coal gas from coal, what remains is coke. ▸ Carbon has a property of catenation i.e. ability to form covalent bonds between carb atoms. That is why carbon can form innumerous compounds The compounds formed by carbon and hydrogen only are called hydrocarbons and are comma to be the basic compounds. Other carbon compounds are considered to be derived from hyde bons The hydrocarbons having only single bonds between carbon atom are called saturated hydroc bons. The hydrocarbons which have at least one double or triple bond between carbon ato called unsaturated hydrocarbons. Methane, ethane, propane etc are saturated hydrocarbon where as ethene, ethyne, propene, propyne etc. are called unsaturated hydrocarbons ▸ Carbon dioxide (CO) can be prepared in laboratory by the chemical reaction of dilute a calcium carbonate. It is of acidic nature and changes blue litmus red. If passed through time it turns lime water milky. ▸ In fire extinguishers, carbon dioxide is produced which is used as fire extinguisher ▸ Methane (CH) is the simplest saturated hydrocarbon.

SPECIMEN QUESTIONS ****

(1) is a good conductor of electricity. 

(1) Coke

 (2) Graphite 

 (3) Diamond

  (4) Coal

   Explanation: Graphite is the only form of carbon which is a good conductor of electricity. 

   Option 2 is correct.

(2) For glass cutting- -is used.

 (1) diamond

  (2) graphite 

  (3) fullerene

   (4) lignite

   Explanation: Diamond is the hardes substance, hence it is used to cut glass. .

   .Option is correct.

3) is a saturated hydrocarbon. 

 (1) Ethene

 (2) Ethyne

  (3) Propene 

  (4) Butane

   Explanation: Butane is a saturated hydrocarbon. .

   .Option 4 is correct.

Which of the following is the form of coal having maximum percentage of carbon in it? (1) Peat 

(2) Bituminous coal 

(3) Anthracite 

(4) Lignite 

Explanation: Anthracite contains about 95% of carbon and is the form of coal having the highest percentage of carbon.

 Option 3 is correct.

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE >>

(1) knives are used in eye surgery. 

(1) Graphite

 (2) Diamond 

 (3) Charcoal

  (4) Fullerene

(2) Diamond

(2) In arc lamps giving bright light,- -is used. (1) graphite

 (2) diamond

  (3) charcoal 

  (4) fullerene

(1) graphite

(3) Valency of carbon is —

. (1) 1

 (2) 2

  (3) 3

   (4) 4 

(4) 4

(4) The pure coal that remains when coal gas is taken out from coal is called

 (1) peat 

 (2) graphite

  (3) diamond

   (4) coke

(4) coke

(5) Solid is called as dry ice. 

(1) methane 

(2) coal

 (3) carbon dioxide 

 (4) graphite

(3) carbon dioxide

(6) Boiling point of methane is—°C.

 (1)-161.5

  (2)-116.5 

  (3)-182.5 

  (4)-128.5

(1)-161.5

(7) - is also called as marsh gas.

 (1) Ethane

  (2) Methane

   (3) Propane

    (4) Butane

(2) Methane

(8) Which of the following chemicals is used in fire extinguisher?

 (1) NaCl 

 (2) NaHCO,

  (3) Na SO

   (4)CaSO

(2) NaHCO,

(9) Liquified from coffee. is used to remove caffeine

 (1) methane

  (2) butane

   (3) carbon dioxide 

   (4) nitrogen

(3) carbon dioxide

(10) The chemical formula for ethane is-

(1) CH

 (2) CH 

(3) CH

(4) C,H,

(1) CH

 (11) Carbon dioxide is by nature.

    (1) acidic

     (2) basic 

     (3) neutral 

     (4) amphoteric

     (1) acidic

(12) Which of the following hydrocarbons is an unsaturated hydrocarbon?

 (1) CH 

 (2) CH (3) CH 

 (4) CH,

 (4) CH,

(13) -is used as a lubricant. 

(1) peat

 (2) graphite (3) diamond (4) coke

(2) graphite

(14) --is used as a catalyst in water purification. (1) peat (2) graphite (3) diamond (4) fullerene

(4) fullerene

(15) The electronic configuration of carbon is (1) (2,2) (2) (2,3) (3) (2, 4) (4) (2,6)

(3) (2, 4)

(16) - - is the main component of biogas. (1) Methane (2) Carbon dioxide (3) Carbon monoxide (4) Butane

(1) Methane

(17) Which of the following is an amorphous form of carbon? (1) Coke (2) Diamond (3) Fullerene (4) Graphite

(1) Coke

(18) The percentage of carbon dioxide present in atmosphere is—. (1)21% (2) 78% (3) Less than 1% (4) more than 3%

(3) Less than 1%

(19) Structure of is tetragonal three dimensional. (1) Coke (2) Diamond (3) Fullerene (4) Graphite

(2) Diamond

(20) - is used for making electrodes. (1) Coke (2) Diamond (3) Fullerene (4) Graphite

(4) Graphite

 18)  Observing Space: Telescopes

IMPORTANT POINTS:

Light is an electromagnetic wave. Our eyes can see only that light which has between 400 nm to 800 nm The telescopes made using two or more lenses are called refracting telescopes >The images formed by the refracting telescopes have chromatic aberrations. So refer telescopes are used. In these telescopes, large mirrors are used ▸ Reflecting telescopes are mainly of two types: (1) Newtonian telescopes and (2) Cassegra telescopes. In Newtonian telescopes, a concave and a plane mirror is used along with a convex lens w Cassegrainian telescopes, a concave mirror and a convex mirror is used along with a conve The biggest optical telescope in India, having a mirror of 3.6 m diameter is situated in the Ary Research Institute of Experimental Sciences, Nainital. This is the largest optical telescope ▸ Radio telescopes collect the radio waves emitted by heavenly objects and with the help puters the image of the heavenly body is constructed. A large radio telescope called the Giant Meterwave Radio Telescope (GMRT) is e Narayangaon near Pune. Scientist from all over the world come to India to make use of th The earth-based telescopes have some limitations (1) Light coming from the heavenly absorbed in the atmosphere to great extent and a clear image is not obtained. (2) Due t in atmospheric pressure and temperature, the light waves change their path continuou image obtained is shaky (3) Due to sun light, optical telescopes cannot be used duri City lights and clouds make it difficult to use the telescopes at night also. To solve thes partially, telescopes can be mounted on top of mountains or at uninhabited places. If e are to be solved completely, then the telescopes must be placed in the space. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) launched into scope called the Hubble telescope

****SPECIMEN QUESTIONS **** 

(1)The wave length of the visible light is 10 400 nm, 800 nm

 (2) 200 nm-600 nm

  (3) 300 nm, 700 nm

   (4) 800 nm, 1000 nm

    Explanation: The wave length of the visible light is 400 to 800 nm. mers 

    Option 1 is correct.

(2) The diameter of the largest optical telescope in Asia is 

(1)56m 

(2) 3.6m

 (3) 2.6 m 

 (4) 6.3 m

  Explanation: The biggest optical telescope in India, having a mirror of 3.6 m diameter is situated in the Aryabhatta Research Institute of Experimental Sciences, Nainital. This is the largest optical telescope in Asia.

   Option 2 is correct.

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

(1) Optical telescope: Hubble :: Indian Radio telescope:

 (1) Chandra 

 (2) GMRT

  (3) Newtonian telescope

   (4) NASA

Ana-(2) GMRT

The wave length of ultra violet rays is-

 (1) 300 pm-400 nm

  (2) 400 nm-800 nm 

  (3) 3 pm-300 pm 

  (4) less than 3 pm

Ana-(1) 300 pm-400 nm

(3) In the optical telescope, reflection of light takes place from a concave mirror, so this telescope is called as ―

 (1) refracting telescope

  (2) radio telescope

   (3) reflecting telescope

    (4) X-ray telescope

Ana-(3) reflecting telescope

(4) In Newtonian telescope used. and is

 (1) concave mirror, convex mirror

  (2) concave mirror, plane mirror

   (3) convex mirror, plane mirror

    (4) concave lens, convex lens

Ana-(2) concave mirror, plane mirror

(5) The telescopes those collect radio waves are called

 (1) Radio telescopes 

 (2) optical telescopes 

 (3) X-ray telescopes 

 (4) Newtonion telescope

Ana-(1) Radio telescopes

(6) Refracting telescope: convex lens :: reflecting telescope: 

(1)concave lens

 (2) prism 

 (3) parabolic dish 

 (4) concave morror

Ana-(4) concave morror

The largest optical telescope in Asia is situated at in India.

 (1) Nainital 

 (2) Narayangaon 

 (3) Nagpur

  (4) Delhi

Ana-(1) Nainital

(8) In Cassegrainian telescope and are used. (1)concave mirror, convex mirror

 (2) convex mirror, plane mirror

  (3) concave mirror, plane mirror

   (4) plane mirror, concave lens

Ana-(1)concave mirror, convex mirror

(9) The Indian organization successfully launched many satellites. has 

(1) NASA 

(2) GMRT

 (3) ISRO

  (4) GSAT

Ana-(3) ISRO

(10) X-ray telescope: Chandra :: Optical telescope:

(1)GMRT

 (2) Hubble

  (3) Surya

   (4) PSLV

Ana-(2) Hubble

(11) The- -satellite series is used for the monitoring and management of natur sources and disaster management. 

(1) INSAT 

(2) GSAT

 (3) IRS

  (4) EDUSAT

Ana-(3) IRS

(12) The NASA has launched an optical telescope- into the space. 

(1) GMRT

 (2) Hubble 

 (3) Chandra 

 (4) PSLV

Ana-(2) Hubble

(13) - is the radio telescope which has been erected at Narayangaon. 

(1) PSLV

 (2) Hubble

  (3) Chandra

   (4) GMRT

Ana-(4) GMRT

(14) Disaster management : IRS Meteorological services:

 (1) PSLV 

 (2) EDUSAT

  (3) GSAT 

  (4) MRT

Ana-(3) GSAT

(15) In 2015, ISRO launched an artificial satellite called, which has ultra-violet and X-ray telescopes and detectors.

 (1) Astrosat

  (2) Chandra 

  (3) Hubble

   (4)

Ana-(1) Astrosat

(16) An X-ray telescope launched by NASA the space is name after Indian scientist. ves

 (1) Jagdishchandra Bose 

 (2) Chandrasekhar Subramanian

  (3) Jayant Naralikar ope

   (4) Raghunath Mashelkar

Ana-(2) Chandrasekhar Subramanian

(17) GMRT uses-

 (1) X-rays

  (2) microwaves 

  (3) infrared waves 

  (4) radio waves

Ana-(4) radio waves

(18) The wavelength of is the maximum among the waves given below. is

 (1) visible light rays 

 (2) microwaves

  (3) radio waves 

  (4) ultraviolet waves

Ana-(3) radio waves

(19) 1 nm=-metre.

 (1)10 

 (2) 10- 

 (3) 10-10

  (4) 10

Ana-(1)10

(20) satellite series is exclusively used for education.

(1) MEDUSAT

 (2) INSAT 

 (3) GSAT

  Ana-(1)MEDUSAT

 15

Life Processes in Living Organisms

IMPORTANT POINTS

 Transportation pantolake pa through xylem and phloem. Xylem transpo Po transports food prepay ng at Plants do Other substances are stored in the vacuoles parts fall off periodically incoles and in the bulb of Amorphophase we d stored They are called rephides. They cause itching while cutting Some waste products of plants are useful to humans of br In Humans, kidneys are the main organs in the extory syst. Hephron i of kidney When blood passes through glomerulus is nered and we produc are collected in Bowman's capsule, Further, those products for urms whe through urethina If the kidneys are adversely affected by injury, infection or decreased blood supply, hey function property In such a case, dialysis of blood needs to be done in this process, th is circulated through dialysing maschine which separatos out the nitrogenous w Systematic regulation of different processes can be called control and bringing about the processes in the proper sequence can be called as coordination. Proper coordination bewoon various systems of an organism helps to maintain a state of Puced homeostasis Homeostasis is necessary for the optimal efficiency of the bo plents, there two types of movements. One is growth-relevant movements and the growth-inslovard movements >Movements of any part of the plants in response to an external stimulus in called as tro trople movements The growth of shoot is in response to stimulus of light. It is called as phototropic move roots grow towards the gravity and water These movements are called gravitropic and pic movementspectively. The growth of the pollen tube towards the ovule is called che The chemical coordination in plants is with the help of hormone The coordination and control in human beings is done by two systema (1) Nervous o (2) Chemical control. Nervous control is done with the help of nervous system. Neurons are the structural units of nervous system Neurons are of three types (1) Sensory neurons-They conduct impulsus from senco the linin and spinal cord (2) Motor neurons-They conduct impulses from the bra cond to effector organske muscles and glanda (3) Association neurona - They function of integration in the nervous system Human nervous system is divided into the following uns party (1) Central nervou Peripheral nervous system (3) Autonomic nervous system The central nervous system consists of brain and spinal cord feripheral

SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

(1)The network of capillaries in Bowman's capsule is called as- glomerulus 

(2) kidney 

(3) medulla 

(4) cortex

 Explanation: The network of capillaries in Bowman's capsule is called as glomerulus Option (1) is correct.

(2)The hormone secreted by -gland controls metabolism of calcium and phosphorus.

 (1) pituitary

  (2) thyroid 

  (3) parathyroid

   (4) adrenal 

   Explanation: The hormone parathormone secreted by parathyroid gland controls metabolism of calcium and phosphorus. Option 3 is correct.the

(3)Find the odd member out: 

(1) Nephron 

(2) Ureter

 (3) Neuron

  (4) Urethra

   Explanation: Neuron is a cell in the nervous system. Others are the parts of the excretory system.

    Option is correct.

(4)There are pairs of cranial nerves.

 (1)31

  (2) 12

   (3) 23

    (4)7 

    Explanation: There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

     Option 2 is correct.

**QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

(1) The long tubular cavity of the spinal cord is called

 (1) ventricle 

 (2) convolution

  (3) CSF

   (4) central canal

Ana-(4) central canal

(2)along with the nervous system are responsible for the control and coordination In our body. 

(1) Salivary glands 

 (2) Mammary glands 

(3) Endocrine glands

(4) mucous glands movement.

Ana-(3) Endocrine glands

(3) The shoot system of plants shows

(1) gravitropic

 (2) phototropic

  (3) hydrotropic

   (4) chemotropic

Ana-(2) phototropic

(4)Proper coordination between various systems of an organism helps to maintain a state of equilibrium called 

(1) homeostasis

 (2) transportation

  (3) photosynthesis

   (4) transpiration

The

Ana-(1) homeostasis

(5)The basic filtration unit in human kidney is (1) Bowman's capsule

 (2) nephron

  (3) neuron 

  (4) glomerulus

Ana-(2) nephron

(6)controls the opening and closing of stomata. 

(1) Guard cells

 (2) Transpiration pull 

 (3) Root pressure 

 (4) Osmosis

Ana-(1) Guard cells

7) Find the odd man out:

 (1) Auxin 

(2) Abscisic acid

 (3) Thyroxine

  (4)Gibberellin

Ana-(3) Thyroxine

(8) There are about human kidney. nephrons in each 

1)10

 (2) 10

  (3) 10

   (4) 10

 Ana-  (3) 10

 (9) Which of the following organs is not related to excretion?

  1) Skin 

  (2) Lungs 

  (3) Kidney 

  (4) Heart

 Ana- (4) Heart

 (10) perform the function of Integration in nervous system.

  (1) Association neurons 

  (2) Sensory neurons

(3) Motor neurons

 (4) Spinal cord 

 Ana-(1) Association neurons

(11) The cells that support the nerve cells and help in their functioning are called

 (1) dendrites ART neuroglia

  (3) axon

   (4) cell body

Ana-(2) neuroglia

(12) The function of hormone abscisic acid is (1) enlargement of cells 

(2) stem elongation

 (3) call division 

 (4)-retardation of growth

Ana-(4) retardation of growth

(13) Beta cells of pancreas secrete hormone- (1) glucagon 

(2) insulin 

(3) somatostatin 

(4) pancreatic polypeptide

Ana-(2) insulin

(14) Which of the following function is performed by the right half of the human brain? 

(1) Speech

 (2) Conversation

  (3) artistic abilities

   (4) logical thinking

Ana-(3) artistic abilities

(15) -is the largest part of the human brain. 

(1) Cerebrum

 (2) Cerebellum 

 (3) Medulla oblongata

  (4) CSF

Ana-(1) Cerebrum

(16) - a part of the brain controls the involuntary activities in our body. 

(1) Cerebrum 

(2) Cerebellum

(3) Medulla oblongata

(4) Spinal cord

Ana-(3) Medulla oblongata

(17) Thyroxine is secreted by___gland,

(1) pituitary

 (2) thyroid 

 (3) pancreas

  (4) ovary 

Ana-  (2) thyroid

(18) Hypothalamus glands are located

 (1) near trachea 

 (2) in the neck 

 (3) on the kidney 

 (4) in the forebrain

Ana-(4) in the forebrain

(19) Tendrils of climbers are sensitive to

 (1) touch 

 (2) light

  (3) gravity 

  (4) water 

 Ana- (1) touch

(20) There are -pairs of spinal nerves. 

(1) 12 

(2)31

 (3) 23 

 (4) 11

Ana-(2) 31

Hints for difficult questions)

(7) Thyroxine is a hormone in human beings, others are plant hormones. .

.Option 3 is correct.

16

Heredity and Variation

IMPORTANT POINTS The branch of biology which studies the the next, and genes in particula Organams produced by anual reprodu al reproduction, show comparati ed heredity: Transfer of characteristics from parental collinstoned DNA Deoxyrib The segment of DNA which contains all the information for synim of a partic a gene Information necessary for protein synthe The structure in the nucleus of cells that carries the hereditary charse mosome ▸ Chromosomes are of four types: (1) Metacentne (2) Sub-metacentric (3)A Telocentric ▸ Watson and Crick produced a model of the DNA structure Two parallel threads made otides are coiled around each other. This arrangement is called as double helix. Each is made up of a nitrogen base, phosphoric acid and a sugar molecule. There are fo nitrogen bases, adenine, guanine, cyline and thymine Aderune is always paired w and guanine is always paired with cytosine ➤ RNA (Ribonucleic acid) is another important nucleic acid in the cell. These are made sugar, phosphate molecule and four types of nitrogen bases Adenine, guanine, cytos

****SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

(1) The structure in the nucleus of cells that carries the hereditary characteristics is called (1) nucleolus

 (2) protoplasm

  (3) nuclear membrane

   (4) Chromosome

    Explanation: The structure in the nucleus of cells that carries the hereditary characteristics is called chromosome.

     Option 4 is correct.

2) In the disorder our body cannot produce pigment melanin.

 (1) albinism

 (2) sickle cell anaemia

  (3) Turner syndrome

   (4) Down syndrome 

   Explanation: In the disorder albinism, our bodycannot produce pigment melanin

   .Option is correct.

(4) The phenotypic ratio in the second filial generation in Mendel's dihybrid cross experiment was found to be

 (1) 1:2:1 

 (2) 9:3:3: 1

  (3) 9:3

   (4) 2:5:3

    Explanation: The phenotypic ratio in the second filial generation in Mendel's dihybridcross experiment was found to be 9.3.3.1. 

    Option (2) is correct.

QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE

(1) The harmful effects of tobacco are mainly due to present in it.

 (1) proteins 

 (2) fats 

 (3) nicotine 

 (4) hormoneof

 Ana-(3) nicotine

(2) Chromosomes are mainly made up of -

(1) DNA

 (2) RNA 

 (3) proteins human cells there

  (4) lipids are

Ana-  (1) DNA

 (3) In chromosomes. 

 (1) 48 

 (2) 44

  (3) 50

   (4)46

Ana-(4)46

4) In the disorder chromosomes instead of 46. there are 47 

(1) Tumer syndrome

 (2) Down syndrome

  (3) Klinefelter syndrome 

  (4) sickle cell anaemia

Ana-(4) sickle cell anaemia

(5) Which of the following disorders are caused due to the abnormalities of chromosomes? 

(A) Down syndrome

 (B) Albinism

  (C) Tumer syndrome

   (D) Sickle cell anaemia

    (1) A and B

     (2) B and C

      (3) A and C

       (4) A and D

Ana-(3) A and C

(6) Which of the following is not a syndrome of sickle cell anaemia?

 (1) Pain in joints 

 (2) Absence of melanin

  (3) Frequent colds and cough

   (4) low haemoglobin content

Ana-(2) Absence of melanin

(7) Which of the following statements is wrong? (A) Mendel's principles form the basis of modern genetics. (B) A segment of RNA is called a gene. (C) In acrocentric chromosome, the centromere is exactly at the midpoint of chromosome. (D) There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in the human cells

. (1) A and B

 (2) B and C

  (3) C and D

   (4chromosome

   Ana-(2) B and 

(8) Telocentric chromosome: letter i :: Metacentric chromosome: letter-

 (1)X 

 (2) Y

  (3) L

   (4)XXYA

   Ana-(4) V

 (9) 44+ X: Turner syndrome :: 44+ XXY:

  (1) Down syndrome.

  (2) Albinism. 

  (3) Klinefelter syndrome. 

  (4) Sickle cell anaemia.

Ana-(3) Klinefelter syndrome.

(10) is not a type of RNA

. (1) rRNA 

(2) mRNA

 (3) XRNA 

 (4) tRNA

Ana-(3) XRNA

(11) The phenotypic ratio in the second filial generation in the experiment of Mendel's monohybrid cross was

 (1) 1:1:1:1

  (2)3:1 

  (3) 9:3:3:1

   (4) 1:2:1

Ana-(2)3:1

(12)In sickle cell anaemia, the___amino acidis replaced by another.

(1)6

 (2) 3rd 

 (3) 5th 

 (4) 13th

Ana-(1)6

(13) performs the function of protein synthesis. 

(1) Mitochondria

 (2) mRNA

  (3) TRNA 

  (4) tRNA

Ana-(3) TRNA

(14) As per the scientists, there are about- genes in the human genome.

 (1)20-30 thousand

  (2) 40-50 thousand 

  (3) 2-3 thousand

   (4) 20-30 million

Ana-(1)20-30 thousand

(15) In the structure of DNA, adenine always pairs with

 (1) adenine

  (2) cytosine 

  (3) guanine

   (4) thymine

Ana-(4) thymine

(16) The allosomes in human females can be represented as

 (1)XX

  (2)XY 

  (3) YY 

(4)XYX

Ana-(1)XX

(17) Which of the following is not a constituent of a DNA?  

1) Adenine 

 (2) Cytosine 

(3) Uracil 

(4) Thymine

Ana-(3)Uracil

(18) Constricted region on chromosome is called as

 (1) arm 

 (2) gene of 

 (3) nitrogen base 

 (4) centromere

Ana-(4) centromere

(19) is not a type of chromosomes.

 (1) Polycentric 

 (2) Metacentric f

  (3) Acrocentric

   (4) Telocentric

Ana-(1) Polycentric

(20) Potato cells have number of chromosomes.

(1)46 

(2) 44 

(3) 48 

(4)23

Ana-(3) 48

 IDEAL QUESTION PAPER:2

(1)Ifdistance covered is denoted by d and displacement is denoted by S. Then which of the following relations is correct? 

(1) d = s

 (2) des

  (3) d≤s

   (4) d>s

Ans-(2) des

(2)If a ball covered circular path having circumference of 200 m. in 4 seconds and then it returned at its origninal place (starting point) then find average speed of the ball. (11)V

 (1) 50 m/s  

  (2) 25 m/s 

  (3) 800 m/s

(4) 0 m/s

Ans-(4) 0 m/s

(3)In the adjoining figure F, is an element of force F. If F=2√2 Newton then find the value of F,?

(1) 2 newton 

 (2) √2 newton

 (3) 1 newton option.

(4) 4 newton

Ans-(1) 2 newton

(4) How much potential energy will increase if a stone on ground of mass ? 3 kg is taken to a height of 10 m. 7

 (1) 30 Joule

  (2) 45 Joule

   (3) 294 Joule 

   (4) 150 Joule

Ans-(3) Does not depend on both above.

(5) Resistivity depends on (2) 45 Joule (4) 150 Joule

 (1) Physical state of conductor means its length 

 (2) Area of cross section 

 (3) Does not depend on both above. 

 (4) Both of above (1) and (2)

Ans-(3) Does not depend on both above.

 (6) ...is not good conductor of electricity.

  (1) Iron

   (2) Copper

    (3) Silver

Ans- (4) Glass

 (7) If 12 gram carbon is burnt completely then mole carbon dioxide will be formed (atomic weight of carbon=124) (4) Glass 

  (1)32

   (2)44

    (3) 2

     (4)1

 Ans-(4)1

.

(8) Atomic weight of hydrogen is 1 and atomic weight of oxygen is 16 then how many grams of hydrogen will be in 2 moles of water ?

 (1)4 grams 

 (2)2 grams 

  (3)1 gram

  (4) 16 grams

Ans-(1)4 grams

 (9) PH value of lemon juice is....

 (1)7 

 (2) less than 7

  (3) Greater than 7 

  (4) 14.

 Ans-(2) less than 7

(10) Which of the following is acidic salt?

 1) Ammonium chloride

 2)  (2) Sodium chloride

 3)  (3) Pottassium Sulphet

 4)  (4) Sodium nitrate

Ans-1) Ammonium chloride

(11) Which of the following living things does not contain chlorophyll? 9 d g

(1) Algen 

 (2) Yeast

  (3) Ferns

   (4) Mass 

Ana-(2) Yeast

(12) Which of the following is not a Primary Consumer?

 (1) Grasshopper 

 (2) Frog

  (3) Elephant

   (4) Squirrel

Ans-(2) Frog

(13) Which of the following processes is not in- volved in nitrogen cycle? 

(1) Nitrogen Fixation

 (2) Burning

  (3) Ammmonification

   (4) Nitrification

Ans-(2) Burning

(14).... is Narrow specturm antibiotics.

 (1) Penicillin 

 (2) amoxicillin

 (3) Tetracyclin

  (4) ampicillian

Ans-(1) Penicillin

(15) Virus is not responsible for.... disease.

 (1) AIDS

  (2) Ringworm 

  (3) Hepatitis

   (4) Swine Flu

Ans-(2) Ringworm

(16) Which of the following processes is not included in 3 R 'Mantra'? 

(1) Reduce

 (2) Recycle

  (3) Reverse

   (4) Reuse

Ans-(3) Reverse

(17) From the following which type of garbage is properly disposed by using process of en- ergy production by burning of waste at high temperatute. 

(1) Biomedical waste

 (2) Farmwaste

  (3) Domestic waste 

  (4) Radioactive waste

Ans-(1) Biomedical waste

(18) Any computer will not work without ...

. (1) Mouse

 (2) Printer 

 (3) Electricity supply 

 (4) Internet

Ans-(3) Electricity supply

(19) Image formed in plane mirror is 

(1) Inverted

 (2) Virtual 

 (3) Real

  (4) Erect

Ans-(2) Virtual

(20) Image formed in convex mirror is always... (1) Larger than object

 (2) Real

  (3) Smaller than object 

  (4) Same as the object

Ans-(3) Smaller than object

(21) In the longtudinal waves the direction of oscillation and direction of propagation of particles of medium is....

 (1) Parallel to each other 

 (2) Prependicular to each other 

 (3) Form angle of 45° with each other. 10 

 (4) Form angle of 22- with each other. 2

Ans-(1) Parallel to each other

(22) Sound with frequency of 15 Hz is called ... (1) Ultra sound 

 (2) Infra sound

 (3) Audible sound

 (4) Loud sound

Ans-(2) Infra sound

(23) Electronic configuration of carbon is ...

 (1) 6

  (2) 2

   (3) (2,8)

    (4) (2,4)

Ans-(4) (2,4)

(24) Find odd man out. 

(1) Graphite

 (2) Diamond

  (3) Pearl 

  (4) Fullerence

Ans-(3) Pearl

(25) The Strong smell of bleeching powder (Caocl,) is due to.... gas.

 (1)0,

  (2) CI, 

  (3) H,S 

  (4) NH,

Ans-(2) CI,

(26) Hard water becomes soft water by using... (1) Chlorine

 (2) Baking soda

 (3) Washing Soda 

 (4) Vinegar

Ans-(4) Vinegar

(27) Find odd man out 

(1) kidney

 (2) Uterus 

 (3) Stomata on leaves 

 (4) Urinary bladder

Ans-(3) Stomata on leaves

(28) Which of the following harmones are not present in human being

 (1) Thyroxine

  (2) Insulin 

  (3) Oxine

   (4) Thymosin

Ans-(3) Oxine

(29) In which of the following diseases shape of blood corpuscles become sickle-shaped? (1) sickle-cell anaemia

 (2) Albinism 

 (3) Down syndrome 

 (4) Turner syndrome

Ans-(1) sickle-cell anaemia

(30) In the Mendel's experiment of the Monohybrid cross phenotypic ratio in second filial generation is ... 

(1) 2:1 

(2) 1:2:3:2:1 

(3) 3:1 

(4) 9:3:3:1

Ans-(4) 9:3:3:1

(31) Which of the following is not an element of DNA? 

(1) Guanine 

(2) Cytosine

 (3) Adenine

  (4) Uracil

Ans-(4) Uracil

(32) Solid ground substance made up of calcium phosphate is...

 (1) cartilage 

 (2) bones

  (3) lymph

   (4) Adipose tissue

Ans-(2) bones

(33) Which of the following chickens is variety of Broilers?

 (1) Cochin

  (2) Leghom

   (3) Ancona

    (4) Lehman

Ans-(1) Cochin

(34) In Newton's telescope... is not used.

 (1) Plane mirror

  (2) Concave mirror 

  (3) convex mirror 

  (4) Convex lens

Ans-(4) Convex lens

(35) Work of GMRT is based on... 

(1) Ultraviolet rays

 (2) Radio waves 

 (3) Visible light rays

  (4) Infrared waves

Ans-(2) Radio waves

 Science and Technology : Ideal Specimen Question Papers: 1 to 10

(1) First Mihir walks 5 meters to east and then 5 meters to north. What is his displacement? (1)17 m

 (2) 13 m

  (3) 12 m

   (4)17 m

Ana-(2) 13 m

(2) Sanika walks round the edge of a circular (1 1 field having radius 700 meters for 2 times. What will be her displacement from starting point?

 (1) 2200 m 

 (2) 1750 m 

 (3) 3500 m 

 (4) 1400 m

Ana-(4) 1400 m

(3) In which of the following statements the work done by force is negative ?

 (1) pushing the stalled vehicle. 

 (2) Moon moves around the earth due to gravitational force.

  (3) Increase speed of vehicle by using force of machine. 

  (4) Lifting an object in opposite direction of gravitational force.

Ana-(4) Lifting an object in opposite direction of gravitational force.

(4) In which of the following instruments light energy is converted into electrical energy?

 (1) Engine

  (3) Tubelight

   (1) Volt 

   (3) Ampere 

   (2) Solar cooker

    (4) Generator

Ana-(2) Solar cooker

(6) If three resistors each of 3 ohm are connected in parallel then their effective resistence will be........ ohm 

(1)9 ohm 1

 (2) ohm

  (3)1 ohm 

  (4) 3 ohm

Ana-(3)1 ohm

(7)Atomic number of sodium is 11 and atomic mass number is 23. Then how many nutrons will be in one atom of sodium? 

(1) 11 

(2) 12

 (3) 34 

 (4) 23

Ana-(2) 12

(8) The value of the Avogadro's number is..

. (1) 6.023 x 1022

 (2) 6.022 x 10

  (3) 6.022 x 1023

   (4) 6.023 x 10

Ana-(3) 6.022 x 1023

(9) Which of the following is amphoteric oxide?

 (1) Na,O 

 (2) Al,O,

  (3) CO, 

  (4) MgO

Ana-(2) Al,O,

(10) When metals are reacted with dilute hydrochloric acid... gas is formed.

(1) chlorine

 (2) carbon dioxide

  (3)hydrogen

   (4) oxygen

Ana-(3)hydrogen

(11) Algae is classified in.... section.

 (1) Pteridophyta

  (2) Bryophyta 

  (3) Gymnosperm

   (4) Thallophyta

Ana-(4) Thallophyta

(12) Which of the following descriptions is not suitable for the plant 'banana'?

 (1) Fibrous root 

 (2) Parallel venation 

 (3) Hard stem

  (4) Trimerous

Ana-(3) Hard stem

(13) Which of the following can be referred as one way transport? 

(1) Carbon cycle

 (2) Oxgen cycle 

 (3) Nitrogen cycle 

 (4) Energy pyramid

Ana'-(4) Energy pyramid

(14) For which of the following processes oxygen does not require?

 (1) respiration

  (2) buming 

  3) photosynthesis 

  4) (4) rusting

Ana-3) photosynthesis

(15) Which of the following micro-organisms is odd man?

 (1) Lactobacilli 

 (2) Clostridium

  (3) Rhizobium 

  (4) Fermentation

Ana-(2) Clostridium

(16) On which of the following yeast will not grow? 

(1) Stale bread

 (2) Leather objects

  (3) Wood 

  (4) Rock

Ana-(4) Rock

(17) Which of the following models is not used to predict Monsoon and climate prediction.

 (1) Monsoon Model 

 (2) Mathematical 

 (3) Holistic Model

  (4) Random Model

Ana-(3) Holistic Model

(18) What does letter R in RICE denotes ?

 (1) Rice 

 (2) Reuse

  3) Read

  4)  (4) Rest

Ana-(4) Rest

(19) Which of the following is not a part of computer hardware ?

 (1) monitor

  (2) program

   (3) mouse 

   (4) processing unit

Ana-(2) program

(20) As the object is taken farther from focus of concave mirror, the image gets.......... 

(1) bigger and bigger 

(2) smaller and smaller 

(3) twice of object 

(4) remains as it is

Ana-(2) smaller and smaller

(21) If height of an image is half of height of an object and if image is erect, then magnification is

(1)2 1 

(2)-

 (3)-2

  (4) 2

Ana-(4) 2

(22) If radius of curvature of a concave mirror is 20 cm., then according to cartesian sign covention, local length of the mirror is........ (1)-10 

(2) 10

 (3)40

  (4)-40

Ana-(1)-10

(23) A sound wave has frequency 8 Hz then the time period of that wave is second.

 (1)8

  (2)4 

  (3) 16

   (4)0.125

Ana-(4)0.125

(24) A sound wave has frequency 250 Hz. If velocity of sound is 350 m/sec then what will be the wave length of that sound wave? 

(1) 0.71 m

 (2) 8.75 m

  (3) 1.4 m 

  (4) 100 m

Ana-(3) 1.4 m

(25) The necessary element of organic compound is....

 (1) Nitrogen

  (2) Sulpher

   (3) Phosphorous

    (4) Carbon

Ana-(4) Carbon

(26) The hardest substance in nature is

 (1) Diamond

  (3) Nut

   (2) Rock

    (4) Iron

Ana-(1) Diamond

(27) The Chemical formula of common salt is... (1) Na,CO

, (2) NaHCO

 (3) Na, Cl

  (4) Nacl

Ana-(4) Nacl

(28) The Chemical formula of substance used to make snacks (food) crispy is .... 

(1) Nacl

 (2) NaliCO,

  (3) Na,Cl

   (4) Nacl

Ana-(3) Na,Cl

(29) The process in which plants give out water in the form of vapour through the Stomata on their leaves is called 

(1) Transpiration

 (2) Respiration

  (3) Photosynthesis 

  (4) Transportation

Ana-(1) Transpiration

(30) Movement of any part of the plant in response to an external stimulus is called

 (1) Homeostasis

  (2) Tropism

   (3) Photosynthesis

    (4) Excretion

Ana-(2) Tropism

(31) There are.... . pairs of chromosoms in cells of human being.

 (1)46 

 (2)47

  (3) 23

   (4)44

Ana-(3) 23

(32) Find odd man out. 

Epithelial tissue

 (2) blood

  (3) Areolar tissue

   (4) Cartilage.

Ana-Epithelial tissue

(33) Which of the following is not a element of

blood? 

(1) Erythrocytes

 (2) Leucocytes

  (3) Platelets in liquid plasma

   (4) Blood Capillaries.

Ana-(3) Platelets in liquid plasma

(34) Wavelength of visible light rays is ...

 (1) Greater than 20 cm

  (2) less than 800 nm

   (3) 400-800 nm

    (4) Greater than 800 nm

Ana-(3) 400-800 nm

(35) One nanometer = picometer.

 (1) 10-3 

 (2) 10-9

  (3) 103

   (4) 10-12

Ana-(3) 103

HINTS FOR DIFFICULT QUESTIONS

B 1. If Mihir walks by way of OA or OB his dis- placement is OB. Ac cording to Pythagoras theorem, Displacement will be 13 m. to displacement (1) er .

.Option 2 is correct ta 5 m A

2. After completing 2 rounds, Sanika returned at her original place. So her displacement is zero. 127 n 1 After completing 2 rounds her displacement 2 will be equal to diameter of circular path. d 

3. Option is correct answer.

3. Effective resistance can be calculated by following formula. (3) 1 1 1 = + RR₁ R2 1 + R 3 13 3 = 1 3 R=1 Ohm ..

4. Option 3 is correct answer.

7. Atomic mass Atomic number number c nutrons No of nutrons = 23-11=12 2

8. .Option 2 is correct option.

15. Clostridium is harmful microorganism other are helpful microorganisms. So, 

16. Option 2 is corrcet option.

22. Focal distance is half of radius of curvature Also according to cartesian sign convention focal distance of concave mirror is considered as negative. So, .

23. .Option 1 is corrcet option.

23. Time period = frequencey 1=0.125 So. Option 4 is corrcet option.

24. Velocity = wavelength x frequecey 350= wavelength x 250 350 7 ..wavelength = 250 5 = 1.4 m. So. 

Option 3 is corrcet option.

32. Except Epithelial tissue all other are connective tissues. So

, Option is corrcet option. 000

 19

ताऱ्यांची जीवनयात्रा

स्वाध्याय

प्रश्न. पुढील प्रत्येक प्रश्नासमोर दिलेल्या पर्याय क्रमांकांपैकी अचूक उत्तराच्या पर्याय-क्रमांकाचे वर्तुळ रंगवा :

1. ----- मुळे तेजोमेघातील कणांमध्ये आकर्षण निर्माण होते.

(1) वायुदाब

(2) गुरुत्वाकर्षण

(3) प्रसरण

(4)तापमानवाढ

उत्तर-गुरुत्वाकर्षण

______________

2. भारतीय खगोलशास्त्रज्ञांनी--- नक्षत्रांची कल्पना मांडली.

(1) 12

(2) 27

(3) 10

(4) 11

उत्तर-27

_______

3. विश्वातील मोठी अंतरे मोजण्यासाठी शास्त्रज्ञ----- हे एकक वापरतात.

(1) किलोमीटर

(2) प्रकाशवर्ष

(3) हेक्टोमीटर

(4) मीटर

उत्तर-प्रकाशवर्ष

____________

4. केंद्रातील हायड्रोज संपल्यावर.                       -------चे विलीनीकरण होऊ  लागते.

(1) निऑन

(2) ऑक्सिजन

(3) हेलिअम

(4) प्रकाश

उत्तर-हेलिअम

___________

5. सूर्याची अंतिम अवस्था----- असेल.

(1) न्यूट्रॉन तारा

(2) कृष्णविवर

- (3) श्वेत बटू

(4) प्रोटॉन तार|

उत्तर-श्वेत बटू

___________

6. सूर्याची त्रिज्या पृथ्वीच्या त्रिज्येच्या -----पट आहे.

(1) 10

-(2) 100

(3) 1000

(4) 10000

उत्तर-100

_________

7. जमिनीवर उभे असताना आपल्या डोक्याच्या बरोबर वर असलेल्या खगोलावरील बिंदूला---- म्हणतात. 

(1) ऊर्ध्व बिंदू

(2) अघ: बिंदू

(3) आयनिक वृत्त

(4) वैषुविक वृत्त

उत्तर-ऊर्ध्व बिंदू

_____________

8. सूर्याचे वस्तुमान हे पृथ्वीच्या वस्तुमानाच्या सुमारे. ----- पट आहे

(1) 3 लक्ष

(2) 1.5 लक्ष

(3) 3.3 लक्ष

(4) 2 लक्ष

उत्तर-3.3 लक्ष

___________

9. सूर्याच्या केंद्रातील तापमान---- असते.

(1) 2 x 10 K

(2)1•5 x 10 K

(3) 5800 K

(4) 6957K

उत्तर-1•5 x 10 K

______________

10. आपल्या आकाशगंगेत सुमारे--- तारे आहेत.

(1) 10

(2) 100

 (3) 1011

(4) 1012

उत्तर-1011

_________

11. विश्व हे असंख्य ------बनलेले आहे.

(1) तारकासमूहांपासून

(2) दीर्घिकांपासून

(3) तेजोमेघांपासून

(4) नक्षत्रांपासून

उत्तर-दीर्घिकांपासून

_______________

12. प्रकाशाचा वेग------ किमी प्रतिसेकंद आहे.

(1) 4 लक्ष

(2) 3 लक्ष

(3) 3.5 लक्ष

(4) 4.5 लक्ष

उत्तर-3 लक्ष

__________

13. सूर्याचे पूर्वेस उगवणे व पश्चिमेस मावळणे हे सूर्याचे -----आहे.

(1) परिभ्रमण

(2) परिवलन

(3) भासमान भ्रमण

(4) प्रत्यक्ष भ्रमण

उत्तर-भासमान भ्रमण

_______________

14. ताऱ्याच्या जागी फक्त अतिसूक्ष्म काळे छिद्र दिसते. ताऱ्याच्या या अंतिम स्थितीस------ म्हणतात.

- (1) कृष्णविवर

(2) महाराक्षसी तारा

(3) न्यूट्रॉन तारा

(4) श्वेत बटू

उत्तर-कृष्णविवर

____________

15. वायुगोल आकुंचित झाल्यास वायूचे तापमान-----

(1) वाढते

(2) कमी होते

(3) निम्मे होते

(4) दुप्पट होते

उत्तर-वाढते

_________

16. महाविस्फोटातून उरलेला केंद्रातील भाग आकुंचित होऊन त्याचा आकार------ च्या जवळपास येतो.

(1) 10km

(2) 3 km

(3) 15 km

(4) 20km

उत्तर-10km

___________

17. सूर्याच्या वस्तुमानाच्या 8 ते 25 पट वस्तुमान असलेल्या ताऱ्याची अंतिम अवस्था------ ही असते.

(1) श्वेत बटू

(2) न्यूट्रॉन तारा

(3) कृष्णविवर

(4) तांबडा राक्षसी तारा

उत्तर-न्यूट्रॉन तारा

_____________

18. ताऱ्यांच्या------ चे कारण त्यांच्या केंद्रातील इंधन जळणे व त्याचे परिमाण कमी होणे हे आहे.

(1) प्रसरण

(2) आकुंचन

(3) उत्क्रांती

(4) घनता

उत्तर-उत्क्रांती

__________

19. ----- हे प्रामुख्याने धूळ व हायड्रोजन वायूचे बनलेले ढग असतात.

(1) तारे

(2) ग्रह

-(3) तेजोमेघ

(4) उपग्रह

उत्तर-तेजोमेघ

__________

20. सूर्याच्या केंद्रभागातील------ 'इंधनाचे कार्य करतो.

(1) हायड्रोजन

(2) हेलिअम

(3) ऑक्सिजन

(4) नायट्रोजन

उत्तर-हायड्रोजन

___________

21. अवकाशातील ताऱ्यांच्या गटाला------- म्हणतात.

(1) तारकासमूह

(2) आकाशगंगा

(3) दीर्घिका

(4) राशी

उत्तर-तारकासमूह

______________

22. -------या अवस्थेतील ताऱ्यांचे तापमान कमी होत जाते; परंतु आकार व वस्तुमान अनंत काळापर्यंत स्थिर राहतात.

- (1) बटू

(2) न्यूट्रॉन तारा

(3) कृष्णविवर

(4) महाराक्षसी तारा

उत्तर-बटू

_______

23. सूर्याच्या वस्तुमानाच्या 25 पर्टीहून अधिक ताऱ्यांची अंतिम अवस्था वस्तुमान------ ही असते. असलेल्या

(1) श्वेत बटू

(2) न्यूट्रॉन तारा

(3) कृष्णविवर

(4) महाराक्षसी तारा

उत्तर-कृष्णविवर

___________

24. आपली 'मंदाकिनी' ही दीर्घिका------ आहे.

(1) चक्राकार

(2) लंबवर्तुळाकार

(3) अनियमित आकाराची

(4) शंकूच्या आकाराची

उत्तर-चक्राकार

___________

25. इतर ताऱ्यांचे वस्तुमान मोजताना ते ----- सापेक्ष मोजले जाते.

(1) सूर्याच्या

(2) चंद्राच्या

(3) पृथ्वीच्या

(4) प्रकाशाच्या

उत्तर-सूर्याच्या

___________

26. एक प्रकाशवर्ष हे अंतर .,------ इतके असते.

(1) 3 x 10 km

(2)95 x 10ll km

_(3) 9.5 x 102 km

(4)3x10/km

उत्तर-9.5 x 102 km

_________________

27. चंद्र एक पृथ्वीप्रदक्षिणा सुमारे ------.दिवसांत पूर्ण करतो.

(1) 27

-(2) 27.3

(3) 360

(4) 17.3

उत्तर-27.3

__________

28. 'आयुका' ही------येथील संस्था खगोल विज्ञानामध्ये मूलभूत संशोधनाचे कार्य करते.

(1) दिल्ली

-(2) पुणे

(3) बेंगळुरू

(4) मुंबई

उत्तर-पुणे

_______

29. सूर्याच्या वस्तुमानापैकी 72 टक्के भाग ------ मूलद्रव्याच्या

अणूंच्या रूपात आहे. 

(1) ऑक्सिजन

(2) हायड्रोजन

(3) हेलिअम

(4) निऑन

उत्तर-हायड्रोजन

__________

30. सूर्याच्या केंद्रामध्ये होणाऱ्या केंद्रकीय एकीकरण प्रक्रियेमध्ये हायड्रोजनच्या केंद्रकांचा संयोग होऊन ------केंद्रके तयार

होतात

(1) युरेनिअमची

_(2) हेलिअमची

(3) थोरिअमची

(4) बेरिअमची

उत्तर-हेलिअमची

____________

31. प्राचीन पाश्चात्त्य खगोलशास्त्रज्ञांनी ------सौर राशींची कल्पना मांडली.

(1) 11

(2) 10

(3) 27

-(4) 12

उत्तर-12

________

32.-------ताऱ्यातून प्रकाश बाहेर पडू शकत नाही.

→ (1) कृष्णविवर

(2) महाराक्षसी तारा

(3) न्यूट्रॉन तारा

(4) तांबडा राक्षसी तारा

उत्तर-कृष्णविवर

_____________

33. पुढीलपैकी कोणत्या शहरात 'नेहरू प्लॅनेटोरिअम' हे तारांगण नाही ?

(1) मुंबई

(2) बेंगळुरू

(3) नवी दिल्ली

- (4) चेन्नई

उत्तर-चेन्नई

________

 17

Introduction to Biotechnology

MPORTANT POINTS 

Agrove of cells having the inay types (1) Simple (2) Complex ue-These e mad There are four types of Muscular nues Us (1) Epithelial t (4) Nervous hux made up of only one type hype of cells (2) Connective b Epithelial tissue are of various types like squamous stated, glandular, column, Connective tues blood, lymph, arestar, adipoon, cartilage, bones, tandons a Types of muscular tuen are striated, non-strated and cardiac muscles Nervous Tissue are made up of neurons Nouron has a cell body mont so called dendrites. One projection is longer and is called as in plants, there are two types of tissues (1) Meristematic tissues and Meristematic tissues are the only plant tissus whose cells are case of cal de present in the parts where growth of the plants takes place. Apical metal of the rool and stem. Intercalary meristem is present at the base of the p branches. Lateral meristem is present in lateral sides of root and > Permanent tissues are of two types (1) Simple permanent tissant (25 Complex por tissues ▸ Simple permanent tissues are mainly of three types: (1) Parenchyma (2) Collemchey (3) Sclerenchyma, Chlorenchyma and Aerenchyma are special types of parenchyma Complex permanent tissues are xylem and phloem Biotechnology-With this technique, it has been possible to produce plants and s some new characteristics in addition to their normal ones. The techniqum of brogingsbot provements in living organisms by artificial genetic changes and by hybridizate for the well human beings are together called Biotechnology. Ex vivo growth of cells or tissues in an aseptic and nutter rich medium in caled the culture Due to Biotechnology, it has been possible to produce crope which ve ability to withstand o ronmental stresses and resist insects, pests, pathogens and Chemicas woodies. The yi the crops and nutritive value is also increased Biotechnology also has applications in floriculture, nurseries and oventry Agritourism, animal husbandry, poultry farming, sericulture are on

****SPECIMEN QUESTIONS ****

 (1) Human blood is a type of tissue. 

 (1) epithelial

  (2) connective 

  (3) muscular 

  (4) nervous

   Explanation: Human blood is a connective type of tissue. ..

   Option 2 is correct.

(2) -tissues increase the length of stem and root. 

(1) Apical meristem 

(2) Intercalary meristem

 (3) Lateral meristem

  (4) Xylem 

  Explanation: Apical meristem tissues increase the length of stem and root. 

  Option 1 is correct.

(3) MON 810 is a GM variety of

 (1) potato 

 (2) rice 

 (3) maize

  (4) tomato

  Explanation: MON 810 is a GM variety of maize

   Option is correct.

(4) -tissues contain chlorophyll. 

(1) Aerenchyma

 (2) Collenchyma

  (3) Sclerenchyma

   (4) Chlorenchyma

    Explanation: Chlorenchyma tissues contain chlorophyll and they do photosynthesis. Option is correct.

**QUESTIONS FOR PRACTICE **

(1) Which of the following tissues is not an animal tissue? 

(1) Connective tissue

 (2) Epithelial tissue 

 (3) Muscular tissue 

 (4) Meristematic tissue

Ana-(4) Meristematic tissue

(2) Which of the following is a type of connective tissue?

 (1) Stratified epithelium 

 (2) Ciliated epithelium 

 (3) Lymph

  (4) Cuboidal epithelium

Ana-(3) Lymph

tissues support the internal organs. 

(1)Areolar 

(2) Cartilage

 (3) Bone

  (4) Tendons

   (3)

Ana-(1)Areolar

(4) Which tissues are found in the inner layer of skin? 

(1) Squamous epithelium

 (2) Stratified epithelium

  (3) Glandular epithelium

   (4)Columnar epithelium

Ana-(3) Glandular epithelium

(5) Which type of tissues form the skeleton of the body?

 (1)Bones

  (2) Cartilage 

  (3) Lymph

   (4) Blood

Ana-(1)Bones

(6) Involuntary muscles: Non-striated muscles :: Voluntary muscles: 

(1) Cardiac muscles

 (2) Nervous tissues 

 (3) Lymph

  (4) Striated muscles

Ana-(4) Striated muscles

(7) Increase length of stem and root: Apicall meristem:: Increase girth of stem and root

 (1) Apical meristem

  (2) Intercalary meristern

   (3) Lateral meristem

    (4) Permanent tissues

Ana-(3) Lateral meristem

(8) Give strength and rigidity to parts of the plant: Sclerenchyma :: Support and give flexibility to parts of the plant :- 

(1) Xylem 

(2) Phloem

 (3) Parenchyma

  (4) Collenchyma

Ana-(4) Collenchyma

(9) Identify the incorrect statement. 

(1) Chlorenchyma helps the plants to float

 (2) Non-striated muscles are also called involuntary muscles

  (3) Cuboidal epithelium is present in tubules of kidneys 

  (4) Blood is a connective tissue.

Ana-(1) Chlorenchyma helps the plants to float

(10) The epidermis of the stem and leaves is covered by a waxy layer called

 (1) cuticle

  (3) vacuole

   (2) stomata 

   (4) guard cells

Ana-(1) cuticle

(11) Protection of body from infections is the function of

 (1) muscles 

 (2) lymph

  (3) cartilage

   (4) bones

Ana-(2) lymph

(12) Protective coverings in the animal body are called 

(1) connective tissues

 (2) muscular tissues

 (3) epithelial tissues

  (4) nervous tissues

Ana-(3) epithelial tissues

(13) Growth of branches and formations of leaves and flowers is the function of 

(1) apical meristems

 (2) intercalary meristems 

 (3) lateral meristems

  (4) collenchyma

Ana-(2) intercalary meristems

(14) -help aquatic plants, leaves and stem to float.

 (1) Chlorenchyma

  (2) Parenchyma 

  (3) Collenchyma

   (4) Aerenchyma

Ana-(4) Aerenchyma

(15) Find the odd member out: 

(1) Sindhi 

(2) Gir

 (3) Lal Kandhari 

 (4) Jersy

Ana-(4) Jersy

(16) are reared for eggs as well as meat. 

(1) Leghorn

 (2) Rhode Island Red

  (3) Cochin

   (4) Lehman

Ana-(2) Rhode Island Red

(17) Ex vivo' growth of cells or tissues in an aseptic and nutrient-rich medium is called 

(1) tissue culture

 (2) agriculture management 

 (3) animal husbandry 

 (4) sericulture

Ana-(1) tissue culture

(18) The cells of - walls. have lignified thick cell (1) parenchyma

 (2) collenchyma

  (3) sclerenchyma

   (4) chlorenchyma

Ana-(3) sclerenchyma

(19) Because of - tissues, it is possible for us to respond to the stimuli like touch. sound, smell, colour etc.

 (1) connective 

 (2) epithelial

(3) muscular

   (4) nervous

Ana-(4) nervous

20) Identify the examples of simple tissues: (A) Epithelial tissues (B) Blood (C) Parenchyma (D) Xylem and phloem 

(1) A and B 

(2) A and C

 (3) A and D

  (4) B and C

Ana-(2) A and 

Hints for difficult questions

(9) Aerenchyma helps the plants to float. S statement

 (1) is wrong.

  Option is correct.

(15) Jersey is the only exotic variety of cow, others are local varieties.

 Option is correct.

 2

आरोग्य व रोग

स्वाध्याय

प्रश्न. पुढील प्रत्येक प्रश्नासमोर दिलेल्या पर्याय क्रमांकांपैकी अचूक उत्तराच्या पर्याय क्रमांकाचे वर्तुळ रंगवा

1. -----चावल्यामुळे रेबीज होत नाही..

(1) कुत्रा

(2) ससा

(3) डास

(4) मांजर

उत्तर-डास

__________

2. एड्स हा रोग--- या विषाणूमुळे होतो.

(1) इन्फ्लुएन्झा ए

(2) HIV

(3) पिकोर्ना

(4) बॅक्टेरिओफाज

उत्तर-HIV

_________

3. तीव्र ताप, तीव्र डोकेदुखी, रक्तातील रक्तबिंबिका कमी होणे ही ----रोगाची लक्षणे आहेत.

(1) क्षय

(2) स्वाईन फ्लू

(3) हिवताप

 (4) डेंग्यू

उत्तर-डेंग्यू

__________

4. 'राष्ट्रीय संचारी रोग संस्था'--- या ठिकाणी आहे.

(1) मुंबई

(2) पुणे

(3) कोलकाता

(4) दिल्ली

उत्तर-दिल्ली

___________

5. जागतिक आरोग्य दिन--- दिवशी साजरा करतात. 

(1) 14 जून

(2) 29 सप्टेंबर

(3) 7 एप्रिल

(4) 14 नोव्हेंबर

उत्तर-7 एप्रिल

____________

6. कर्करोगाचे निदान करण्यासाठी पुढीलपैकी---- या तंत्राचा वापर करण्यात येत नाही. 

(1) टिश्यू डायग्नोसिस

(2) सी. टी. स्कॅन

(3) मॅमोग्राफी बायॉप्सी •

(4) ELISA

उत्तर-ELISA

_____________

7. जगातील मधुमेहाचे सर्वाधिक रुग्ण ----आढळतात.

(1) आफ्रिकेत

(2) अमेरिकेत

(3) भारतात

(4) ऑस्ट्रेलियात

उत्तर-भारतात

____________

8. पुढीलपैकी कोणता आदिजीव मलेरिया (हिवताप ) होण्यास कारणीभूत आहे?

 (1) प्लास्मोडिअम व्हायव्हॅक्स

( 2 ) एन्टामिबा हिस्टोलिटिका

(3) अमिबा

(4) पॅरामेशिअम

उत्तर-प्लास्मोडिअम व्हायव्हॅक्स

_________________________

9. 'कॉम्प्रेशन ओन्ली लाइफ सपोर्ट' ही प्राथमिक उपचार पद्धती ----झालेल्या व्यक्तीसाठी वापरतात.

(1) हृदयरोग

(2) मधुमेह

(3) कर्करोग

(4) स्वाईन फ्लू

उत्तर-हृदयरोग

_____________

10.---- या दिवशी 'जागतिक रक्तदान दिन' साजरा केला जातो.

(1) 14 जून

(2) 7 एप्रिल

(3) 29 सप्टेंबर

(4) 14 नोव्हेंबर

उत्तर-14 जून

__________

11. -----ला भारत सरकारने पंतप्रधान जन औषध योजना जाहीर केली.

(1) 1 जुलै 2015

(2) 1 जून 2015

(3) 1 जुलै 2014

(4) 1 जून 2014

उत्तर-1 जुलै 2015

_________________

12. पुढीलपैकी गटात न बसणारा शब्द ओळखा : हिवताप, कावीळ, हत्तीरोग, डेंग्यू,

(1) हिवताप

(2) कावीळ

(3) हत्तीरोग

(4) डेंग्यू

उत्तर-कावीळ

____________

13. एड्स (AIDS) या रोगाचे निदान करण्यासाठी कोणती चाचणी केली जाते ?

(1) HCG

(2) WIDAL

 (3) ELISA

(4) CBC

उत्तर-ELISA

_____________

14. 'हिवताप' हा आजार----- डासाच्या मादीमुळे होतो.

(1) अॅनाफिलीस

(2) क्युलेक्स

(3) एडिस इजिप्ती

(4) एडिस अल्बोपिक्टस

उत्तर-क्युलेक्स

_____________

15. -----चा संसर्ग डुक्कर या प्राण्याद्वारे तसेच संसर्गित माणसांद्वारे होतो.

(1) हिवताप

(2) डेंग्यू

(3) स्वाईन फ्लू

(4) रेबीज

उत्तर-स्वाईन फ्लू

_____________

16. पुढीलपैकी----- हा असंसर्गजन्य रोग आहे.

(1) डेंग्यू

(2) स्वाईन फ्लू

(3) एड्स

(4) कर्करोग

उत्तर-कर्करोग

___________

17.----- या रोगाचे विषाणू मज्जातंतूंवाटे मेंदूत प्रवेश करतात.

(1) एड्स

(2) हिवताप

(3) रेबीज

(4) डेंग्यू

उत्तर-रेबीज

__________

18. पुढीलपैकी कोणते लक्षण हृदयविकार (Heart Disease) या रोगाचे नाही ?

(1) लठ्ठपणा

(2) छातीत असह्य वेदना होणे

(3) घाम येणे

(4) अस्वस्थता व कंप जाणवणे

उत्तर-लठ्ठपणा

____________

19. पेशींच्या अनियंत्रित व अपसामान्य वाढीस -----म्हणतात.

(1) मधुमेह

(2) हृदयविकार

(3) रेबीज

(4) कर्करोग

उत्तर-कर्करोग

___________

20.----या डासांचे वास्तव्य प्रदूषित पाणी/गटारे येथे असते.

(1) अॅनाफिलिस

(2) क्युलेक्स

(3) एडिस इजिप्ती

(4) एडिस अल्बोपिक्टस

उत्तर-क्युलेक्स

___________

21. -----ग्रंथीमुळे निर्माण होणारे इन्सुलिन हे संप्रेरक रक्तातील शर्करेच्या (ग्लुकोज) प्रमाणावर नियंत्रण ठेवते.

(1) मूत्रपिंड

(2) पिट्युटरी ग्रंथी

(3) अधिवृक्क ग्रंथी

(4) स्वादुपिंड

उत्तर-स्वादुपिंड

____________

22. कॅन्सरच्या उपचारांसाठी----  ही औषधी वनस्पतीवापरतात.

(1) अडुळसा

(2) सिंकोना

(3) कडुनिंब

(4) सदाफुली

उत्तर-सदाफुली

_____________

23. गटात न बसणारा शब्द ओळखा :

प्लेग, एड्स, कॉलरा, क्षय,

(1) प्लेग

 (2) एड्स

(3) कॉलरा

(4) क्षय

उत्तर-एड्स

__________

24. मार्च 2009 मध्ये ---देशात स्वाईन फ्लू या आजाराची

प्रथम बाधा झाली.

(1) ब्राझील

(2) इंडोनेशिया

(3) भारत

(4) मेक्सिको

उत्तर-मेक्सिको

___________

25. 'हिब्रिओ कॉलरी' या जीवाणूमुळे--- रोग होतो.

(1) क्षय

(2) कावीळ

(3) पटकी

(4) हगवण

उत्तर-पटकी

__________

26. अमेरिकेत----% जेनेरिक औषधांचा वापर केला जातो.

(1) 90

(2) 80

(3) 60

(4) 70

उत्तर-80

________

27. ----या संप्रेरकाचे प्रमाण कमी झाल्यास शर्करेचे प्रमाण नियंत्रित होत नाही.

(1) अल्डेस्टेरॉन

(2) ऑक्सिटोसिन

(3) इंस्ट्रोजन

(4) इन्सुलिन

उत्तर-इन्सुलिन

____________

28. हत्तीरोग--- या डासाच्या मादीमुळे होतो.

(1) अॅनाफिलीस

(2) क्युलेक्स

(3) एडिस इजिप्ती

(4) डेन-1

उत्तर-क्युलेक्स

____________

29.----हा रोग इन्फ्लुएन्झा - ए या विषाणूमुळे होतो.

(1) हिवताप

(2) डेंग्यू

(3) एड्स

(4) स्वाईन फ्लू

उत्तर-स्वाईन फ्लू

______________

30.----- या रोगाला 'जलसंत्रास' असेही म्हणतात.

(1) क्षय

(2) स्वाईन फ्लू

(3) डेंग्यू

(4) रेबीज

उत्तर-रेबीज

___________

31. 'जागतिक मधुमेह दिन' ----या दिवशी साजरा केला जातो.

(1) 14 जून

(2) 29 सप्टेंबर

(3) 14 नोव्हेंबर

(4) 2 डिसेंबर

उत्तर-14 नोव्हेंबर

______________

32. अॅन्जिओप्लास्टी, स्टेंट टाकणे, पेसमेकर बसवणे, बायपास सर्जरी या सर्व उपचारपद्धती ---उपयुक्त ठरतात.

(1) कर्करोगासाठी

(2) मधुमेहासाठी

(3) हृदयविकारासाठी

(4) एड्ससाठी

उत्तर-हृदयविकारासाठी

___________________

33. पुढीलपैकी कोणते विधान चुकीचे आहे ?

(1) 'क्षय' या रोगासाठी DOT हा उपचार पूर्ण व नियमित घ्यावा.

(2) 'अतिसार' या रोगासाठी जलसंजीवनी (ORS) घ्यावी.

(3) 'पटकी' या रोगासाठी कॉलरा प्रतिबंधक लस घ्यावी.

(4) 'विषमज्वर' या रोगासाठी बी.सी.जी. लस टोचून घ्यावी.

उत्तर-विषमज्वर' या रोगासाठी बी.सी.जी. लस टोचून घ्यावी.

______________________

34. एडिस इजिप्ती प्रकारच्या डासांमार्फत -----हा संसर्गजन्य रोग पसरतो. 

(1) हिवताप

 (2) डेंग्यू

(3) स्वाईन फ्लू

(4) हत्तीरोग

उत्तर-डेंग्यू

___________

35. कुत्रा चावल्यानंतर 'रेबीज' या आजाराची लक्षणे---- दिवसांत दिसू लागतात.

 (1) 90 ते 175

(2) 90 ते 120

(3) 90 ते 150

(4) 90 ते 110

उत्तर-90 ते 175

______________

36, इन्सुलिनचे प्रमाण कमी झाल्यास रक्तातील शर्करेचे (ग्लुकोज) प्रमाण नियंत्रित होत नाही, या विकाराला ----म्हणतात.

(1) हृदयविकार

(2) कर्करोग

(3) स्वाईन फ्लू

(4) मधुमेह

उत्तर-मधुमेह

___________

37. 'जलद्वेष' हे ' ----रोगाचे महत्त्वाचे लक्षण आहे.

(1) रेबीज

(2) डेंग्यू

(3) क्षय

(4) हत्तीरोग

उत्तर-रेबीज

__________

38• 29 सप्टेंबर या दिवशी 'जागतिक---- . दिन' साजरा केला जातो.

(1) आरोग्य

(2) रक्तदान

(3) हृदय

(4) मधुमेह

उत्तर-हृदय

________

 3

बल व दाब

स्वाध्याय

प्रश्न. पुढील प्रत्येक प्रश्नासमोर दिलेल्या पर्याय क्रमांकांपैकी अचूक उत्तराच्या पर्याय क्रमांकाचे वर्तुळ रंगवा :

1. पास्कल हे------एकक आहे.

(1) वेगाचे

 (2) दाबाचे

(3) वस्तुमानाचे

(4) बलाचे

उत्तर-दाबाचे

____________

2. ----ही सदिश राशी आहे.

(1) घनता

(2) वायूचा दाब

(3) वस्तुमान

(4) बल

उत्तर-बल

__________

3. 1 bar =----- Pa.

(1) 102

(2) 104

(3) 105

(4) 108

उत्तर-105

___________

4. घनतेचे SI पद्धतीतील एकक आहे..

(1) kg/m3

(2) N/m2

(3) Pa/m2

(4) g/m3

उत्तर-kg/m3

_____________

5. वेगळा शब्द ओळखा दुग्धतामापी, हायड्रोमीटर, व्होल्टमीटर, पाणबुडी.

(1) हायड्रोमीटर

(2) दुग्धतामापी

(3) पाणबुडी

(4) व्होल्टमीटर

उत्तर-व्होल्टमीटर

______________

6. पुढीलपैकी कोणते असंपर्क बलाचे उदाहरण नाही ?

(1) चुंबकीय बल

(2) गुरुत्वीय बल

(3) स्थितिक विदयुत बल

(4) स्नायूबल 

उत्तर-स्नायूबल 

______________

7.-----स्थिर वस्तूला गती मिळते, गतिमान वस्तूची चाल व  दिशा बदलते.

(1) बलामुळे

(2) घनतेमुळे

(3) दाबामुळे

(4) जडत्वामुळे

उत्तर-बलामुळे

_____________

8. दाबाचे SI पद्धतीतील एकक-- आहे.

(1) N/m3

 (2) N/m2

(3) kg/m2

(4) Pa/m2

उत्तर-N/m2

____________

9. जहाजे व पाणबुड्या यांच्या बांधणीत--- चा वापर होतो.

(1) पास्कल नियम

(2) न्यूटन नियम

(3) आर्किमिडीज तत्त्व

(4) गुरुत्वाकर्षण तत्त्व

उत्तर-आर्किमिडीज तत्त्व

____________________

10. एकक क्षेत्रफळावर लंब दिशेने प्रयुक्त असणाऱ्या बलास--- असे म्हणतात.

(1) घनता

(2) दाब

(3) जडत्व

(4) चुंबकीय बल

उत्तर-दाब

__________

11. पदार्थाची शुद्धता ठरवताना ---- हा गुणधर्म उपयोगी पडतो.

(1) जडत्व

(2) त्वरण

(3) गती

(4) घनता

उत्तर-घनता

___________

12. बलाचे SI एकक---- आहे.

(1) बार (bar)

(2) N/m2

(3) पास्कल (Pa)

 (4) न्यूटन (N)

उत्तर-न्यूटन (N)

_____________

13. फिरणारा विजेचा पंखा बंद केल्यानंतरही काही वेळ फिरत राहतो हे----- चे उदाहरण आहे.

(1) विराम अवस्थेतील जडत्व

(2) गतीचे जडत्व

(3) दिशेचे जडत्व

(4) दाब

उत्तर-गतीचे जडत्व

________________

14. SI पद्धतीत ---एकक न्यूटन आहे...

(1) त्वरणाचे

(2) बलाचे

(3) विस्थापनाचे

(4) दाबाचे

उत्तर-बलाचे

___________

15. आपल्या शरीरावरील हवेचा दाब ----दाबाइतका असतो.

(1) वातावरणीय

(2) समुद्राच्या तळावरील

(3) अंतराळातील

(4) जमिनीवरील

उत्तर-वातावरणीय

_______________

16. पाण्याची घनता--- आहे.

(1) 1g/m3

(2)1g/m2

(3) 100 kg/m3

(4) 1000 kg/m²

उत्तर-1g/m3

___________

17.वस्तू गतीच्या ज्या स्थितीत आहे त्याच स्थितीत राहण्याच्या प्रवृत्तीला तिचे ---म्हणतात.

(1) बल

(2) जडत्व

(3) दाब

(4) घनता

उत्तर-जडत्व

__________

18.स्क्रूच्या टोकाचे क्षेत्रफळ 5 cm 2 असून त्याचे वजन 0.5 N आहे. तर स्क्रूने लाकडी फळीवर प्रयुक्त केलेला दाब काढा.

(1) 103 N/m2

(2) 2 x 10 N/m2

(3) 0.2 x 103 N/m²

(4) 20x 103 N/m2

उत्तर-103 N/m2

_______________

19. वाहन सरळ रेषेत गतिमान असताना अचानक वळण घेतल्यास, प्रवासी विरुद्ध दिशेला फेकले जातात, हे--- उदाहरण आहे.

(1) विराम अवस्थेतील जडत्व

(2) गतीचे जडत्व

(3) दिशेचे जडत्व

(4) दाब

उत्तर-दिशेचे जडत्व

________________

20. आर्किमिडीज हे ---शास्त्रज्ञ होते..

(1) अमेरिकन

(2) ग्रीक

(3) भारतीय

(4) फ्रेंच

उत्तर-ग्रीक

__________

21. -----हे समान राशींचे गुणोत्तर असल्याने यास एकक नाही.

(1) दाब

(2) बल

(3) वस्तुमान

(4) सापेक्ष घनता

उत्तर-सापेक्ष घनता

________________

22. पाण्यात किंवा अन्य द्रवात किंवा वायूत असलेल्या वस्तूवर वरच्या दिशेने प्रयुक्त बलाला--- असे म्हणतात.

(1) दाब

(2) प्लावक बल

(3) गुरुत्वीय बल

(4) चुंबकीय बल

उत्तर-प्लावक बल

_______________

23. पुढीलपैकी कोणती राशी सदिश नाही ?

(1) त्वरण

(2) बल

(3) विस्थापन

(4) दाब

उत्तर-दाब

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24. आपल्या डोक्यावर सुमारे .---- पास्कल हवेचा भार असतो.

(1) 101 × 104

(2) 101 x 103

(3) 101 × 105

(4) 101 × 106

उत्तर-101 x 103

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25. जसजसे समुद्रसपाटीपासून उंचावर जावे, तसतसा वातावरणीय

दाब----

(1) वाढतो

(2) तसाच राहतो

(3) कमी होतो

(4) वाढतो

उत्तर-कमी होतो

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26. एखाद्या पदार्थानि स्थायूवर लावलेला दाब हा कोणत्या बाबींवर अवलंबून असतो ?

(1) त्या पदार्थाच्या वजनावर व संपर्क क्षेत्रफळावर

(2) त्या पदार्थांच्या वस्तुमानावर व संपर्क क्षेत्रफळावर

(3) त्या पदार्थांच्या फक्त संपर्क क्षेत्रफळावर

(4) त्या पदार्थाच्या फक्त वस्तुमानावर

उत्तर-त्या पदार्थाच्या वजनावर व संपर्क क्षेत्रफळावर

_______________________

27. गटात न बसणारी राशी कोणती ?

वस्तुमान, लांबी, वेळ, चाल.

(1) वस्तुमान

(2) लांबी

(3) वेळ

(4) चाल

उत्तर-चाल

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28.----- म्हणजेच पदार्थाचे 'विशिष्ट गुरुत्व' होय.

(1) सापेक्ष घनता

(2) जडत्व

(3) प्लावक बल

(4) वस्तुमान

उत्तर-सापेक्ष घनता

_________________

29. फळीवर ठेवलेल्या खाऊच्या डब्याच्या तळाचे क्षेत्रफळ 0.25m 2 असून, त्याचे वजन 50 N आहे; त्या डब्याने फळीवर प्रयुक्त केलेला दाब काढा.

(1) 20N/m2

(2) 200 N/m2

(3)2N/m2

(4) 0.2 N/m2

उत्तर-200 N/m2

________________

30. ----ही अदिश राशी आहे.

(1) वेग

(2) बल

(3) दाब

(4) विस्थापन

उत्तर-दाब

__________

31. टेबलावर एका धातूचा ठोकळा ठेवला असून त्याचे वजन

98 N आहे. ठोकळ्याच्या तळाची लांबी 0.5 मीटर व

रुंदी 0.2 मीटर आहे, तर तो ठोकळा टेबलावर किती दाब प्रयुक्त करील ?

(1) 980 Pa

(2) 98 Pa

(3) 9.8 Pa

(4) 0.98 Pa

उत्तर-980 Pa

______________

32. टेबलावर ठेवलेल्या पुस्तकाच्या तळाचे क्षेत्रफळ 0.50m 2 असून, त्याचे वजन 25 N आहे; तर त्या पुस्तकाने टेबलावर प्रयुक्त केलेला दाब किती ?

(1) 5N/m2

(2) 0.5 N/m2

(3) 50N/m2

(4) 12.5 N/m2

उत्तर-50N/m2

_____________

33. ज्या पृष्ठभागावर बल प्रयुक्त केले आहे त्याचे क्षेत्रफळ कमी झाले की, त्याच बलाचा पृष्ठभागावरील दाब-----

(1) वाढतो

(2) कमी होतो

(3) समान राहतो

(4) बदलत नाही 1234

उत्तर-वाढतो

__________

34. 1 mbar =.----- Pa.

(1) 103

(2) 102

(3) 1.01 × 103

(4) 1.01

उत्तर-102

__________

35. घनता = आकारमान

(1) बल

(2) दाब

(3) वस्तुमान

(4) जडत्व

उत्तर-वस्तुमान

____________

36. पाण्यात टाकलेली वस्तू पाण्यावर तरंगते; कारण -

(1) प्लावक बल हे गुरुत्वीय बलापेक्षा जास्त असते.

(2)प्लावक बल हे गुरुत्वीय बलापेक्षा कमी असते.

(3) प्लावक बल व गुरुत्वीय बल समान असते.

(4) वस्तूवर गुरुत्वीय बल क्रिया करीत नाही.

उत्तर-प्लावक बल हे गुरुत्वीय बलापेक्षा जास्त असते.

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